SBI Clerk Mains Online Test in English, SBI Clerk Mock Test 2024

(Q. 1 – 15) Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1 – 5) : In the following questions, the symbols #, %, @, $ and & are used with the following meanings as illustrated below
‘A # B’ means A is not smaller than B.
‘A % B’ means A is not greater than B.
‘A @ B’ means A is nether smaller than nor equal to B.
‘A $ B’ means A is nether greater than nor equal to B.
‘A & B’ means A is nether smaller than nor greater than B.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statemennts :
H & W, W % R, R @ F
Conclusions :
I. R & H
II. R @ H

Directions : In the following questions, the symbols #, %, @, $ and & are used with the following meanings as illustrated below
‘A # B’ means A is not smaller than B.
‘A % B’ means A is not greater than B.
‘A @ B’ means A is nether smaller than nor equal to B.
‘A $ B’ means A is nether greater than nor equal to B.
‘A & B’ means A is nether smaller than nor greater than B.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statements :
M $ T, T @ K, K & D
Conclusions :
I. D $ T
II. K $ M

Directions : In the following questions, the symbols #, %, @, $ and & are used with the following meanings as illustrated below
‘A # B’ means A is not smaller than B.
‘A % B’ means A is not greater than B.
‘A @ B’ means A is nether smaller than nor equal to B.
‘A $ B’ means A is nether greater than nor equal to B.
‘A & B’ means A is nether smaller than nor greater than B.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statements :
R % N, N # F, F @ B
Conclusions :
I. F & R
II. B $ N

Directions : In the following questions, the symbols #, %, @, $ and & are used with the following meanings as illustrated below
‘A # B’ means A is not smaller than B.
‘A % B’ means A is not greater than B.
‘A @ B’ means A is nether smaller than nor equal to B.
‘A $ B’ means A is nether greater than nor equal to B.
‘A & B’ means A is nether smaller than nor greater than B.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statements :
H @ W, W $ M, M # K
Conclusions :
I. K & W
II. H @ M

Directions : In the following questions, the symbols #, %, @, $ and & are used with the following meanings as illustrated below
‘A # B’ means A is not smaller than B.
‘A % B’ means A is not greater than B.
‘A @ B’ means A is nether smaller than nor equal to B.
‘A $ B’ means A is nether greater than nor equal to B.
‘A & B’ means A is nether smaller than nor greater than B.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statements :
R # T, T & M, M @ D
Conclusions :
I. D $ T
II. R # M

Directions (Q. 6 – 10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
In a certain code language ‘register yourself now’ is coded as ’56 83 71 37′,
‘what is your result’ is coded as ’76 75 38 83′,
‘my self is ritu’ is coded as ’37 86 16 76′ and
‘my result was good’ is coded as ’75 58 16 63′.
What does ’86’ stand for?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
In a certain code language ‘register yourself now’ is coded as ’56 83 71 37′,
‘what is your result’ is coded as ’76 75 38 83′,
‘my self is ritu’ is coded as ’37 86 16 76′ and
‘my result was good’ is coded as ’75 58 16 63′.
What is the code for ‘new result’?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
In a certain code language ‘register yourself now’ is coded as ’56 83 71 37′,
‘what is your result’ is coded as ’76 75 38 83′,
‘my self is ritu’ is coded as ’37 86 16 76′ and
‘my result was good’ is coded as ’75 58 16 63′.
Which of the following could be a code for ‘it is my result’?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
In a certain code language ‘register yourself now’ is coded as ’56 83 71 37′,
‘what is your result’ is coded as ’76 75 38 83′,
‘my self is ritu’ is coded as ’37 86 16 76′ and
‘my result was good’ is coded as ’75 58 16 63′.
What is the code for ‘What’?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
In a certain code language ‘register yourself now’ is coded as ’56 83 71 37′,
‘what is your result’ is coded as ’76 75 38 83′,
‘my self is ritu’ is coded as ’37 86 16 76′ and
‘my result was good’ is coded as ’75 58 16 63′.
For how many words, codes can be determined?

Directions (Q. 16 – 20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends. All of them are of different heights. The tallest persons’ positions is numbered 1 and the next tallest is numbered 2 and so on. till the shortest whose position number is 7. A is taller than D, who is shorter than C but not the shortest. There are only two persons between the position of G and A. E is taller than at least three persons. C is taller than F but is not the tallest. B is not the tallest and G is not the shortest but B is taller than G. The sum of D’s position number and A’s position number is equal to the sum of B’s position number and G’s position number. The sum of E’s position number and F’s position number is equal to the sum of C’s position number and G’s position number.
Who is the tallest?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends. All of them are of different heights. The tallest persons’ positions is numbered 1 and the next tallest is numbered 2 and so on. till the shortest whose position number is 7. A is taller than D, who is shorter than C but not the shortest. There are only two persons between the position of G and A. E is taller than at least three persons. C is taller than F but is not the tallest. B is not the tallest and G is not the shortest but B is taller than G. The sum of D’s position number and A’s position number is equal to the sum of B’s position number and G’s position number. The sum of E’s position number and F’s position number is equal to the sum of C’s position number and G’s position number.
What is the position number of A?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends. All of them are of different heights. The tallest persons’ positions is numbered 1 and the next tallest is numbered 2 and so on. till the shortest whose position number is 7. A is taller than D, who is shorter than C but not the shortest. There are only two persons between the position of G and A. E is taller than at least three persons. C is taller than F but is not the tallest. B is not the tallest and G is not the shortest but B is taller than G. The sum of D’s position number and A’s position number is equal to the sum of B’s position number and G’s position number. The sum of E’s position number and F’s position number is equal to the sum of C’s position number and G’s position number.
If B interchanges his rank position with A then how many of them are shorter than B?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends. All of them are of different heights. The tallest persons’ positions is numbered 1 and the next tallest is numbered 2 and so on. till the shortest whose position number is 7. A is taller than D, who is shorter than C but not the shortest. There are only two persons between the position of G and A. E is taller than at least three persons. C is taller than F but is not the tallest. B is not the tallest and G is not the shortest but B is taller than G. The sum of D’s position number and A’s position number is equal to the sum of B’s position number and G’s position number. The sum of E’s position number and F’s position number is equal to the sum of C’s position number and G’s position number.
The sum of the position number of which of the following combination is perfect square/cube?

Directions : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends. All of them are of different heights. The tallest persons’ positions is numbered 1 and the next tallest is numbered 2 and so on. till the shortest whose position number is 7. A is taller than D, who is shorter than C but not the shortest. There are only two persons between the position of G and A. E is taller than at least three persons. C is taller than F but is not the tallest. B is not the tallest and G is not the shortest but B is taller than G. The sum of D’s position number and A’s position number is equal to the sum of B’s position number and G’s position number. The sum of E’s position number and F’s position number is equal to the sum of C’s position number and G’s position number.
Which of the following is true for the given information?

Q. (15 – 30) Numerical Ability

Directions : (Q. 15 – 20) : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
12% of 885 = ? ÷ 6

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
5.35 + 4.43 + 0.45 + 45.34 + 534 = ?

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
(1.1 + 1.1 + 1.1 + 1.1) x 1.1 x 1.1 = ? = ? x 0.121

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
0.3 x 10^-3 = ?

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
9.99 x 9.9 x 9 ÷ 9.9 ÷ 0.3 = ?

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
0.08% of 55500 – 16.4 = ?

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
12^4.5 x 12^? = 12^5.6 x 12^1.8

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
√784 × 11.25 = ?

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
312 × ? × 26 = 64896

Directions : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
(363/?) = (?/192)

The sum of the squares of two numbers is 208 and the square of their difference is 16. What is the product of the two numbers?

If the price of an item is increased by 15% it increases by Rs. 72. What is the original price of the item?

A class has 16 boys and 24 girls. The averaage age of the boys is 12 years and that of that of the girls is 10 years. What is the averaage age of the whole class? (in years)

The age of A five years ago was four times the age of B. At present, A’s age is 2.5 times the age of B. What is the present of B?

Mr. X sells an article for Rs. 2668 and earns a profit of 15%. What is the cost of the article?

(Directions. 1 – 8): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
What conditions was/were placed before a certain category of FIIs in 1996?
(A) They were allowed 70% exposure to debt securities.
(B) They were allowed to invest only in debt instruments.
(C) They were allowed to invest in debt instruments subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion.

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
What is/are the reasons behind the growth of foreign investors’ interest in India?

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
Which of the following statements is/are false according to the given passage?

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
What, according to the passage, is the effect of exit of portfolio capital from Indian economy?

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
Which of the following statements is/are true on the basis of the facts mentioned in the given passage?
(A) There was sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system due to the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the financial crisis.
(B) Despite the reversal in flows in 2013, the number of foreign portfolio investors in India has increased.
(C) The SEBI permitted Hs to invest in equity 70 per cent of their investment.

Directions: Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in hold as used in the passage.
Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
Corollary

Directions: Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in hold as used in the passage.
Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
Exposure

Foreign investor presence in India’s debt markets has increased considerably after the global financial crisis. Annual inflows over the years ending August peaked at $3.4 billion in 2008, fell to less than $600 million in the immediate post-crisis year 2009, and rose sharply to $10.2 billion in the year ended August 2010, $6 billion in the year ended August 2011 and $9 billion in year ended August 2012. The year to August 2013 was unusual inasmuch as there were net outflows of $2.8 billion, to be followed by a surge to $12.9 billion in the year to August 2014. The collapse in flows and the exit of FPIs from the debt market in 2013 were clearly related to the fears of a liquidity squeeze generated by talk of the “taper” in the US.
The exit of portfolio capital weakened India’s rupee considerably, worsened sentiment and accelerated the outflow. A corollary of this relationship between expectations of the state of international liquidity (influenced by the policy stance of the US Federal Reserve the direction of movement of the rupee and the volcanism inflows into debt markets, is that the post-crisis of foreign presence in India’s de as the result of the sharp increase in liquidity in the international financial system as a result of the monetary and fiscal policies adopted in response to the crisis.
Interest rates in India are much higher than in international markets, and if the assessment of exchange risk is that it is low (or that the rupee will not depreciate by ‘abnormal’ margins), investment interest in the Indian debt market would be high. The result has been that despite the reversal in flows in 2013, cumulative net investment by FPIs in India’s debt markets has risen from less than a billion dollars in 2006 to $30 billion at the end of August 2012 and $41 billion on August 27, 2014.
One reason for the growing foreign investor interest in Indian debt was the liberalisation of policy with regard to permitting foreign portfolio investment in the debt market. It was in 1995 that the Securities and Exchange Board of India permitted His to invest in debt markets, subject to the 70:30 rule, which specified that 70 per cent of an investor’s exposure should be to equity and only 30 per cent to debt. The cap on total FIT investment in debt was set at $1-1.5 billion. Soon, in 1996, a category of FIIs that were allowed to invest only in debt instruments were permitted into the country’s capital markets, with 100 per cent exposure to debt securities (including corporate bonds) subject to the aggregate ceiling of $1-1.5 billion. In 1998, such investment was permitted in unlisted securities as well or through the private placement market. Even as recently as 2004, the limit on aggregate debt was at $1 billion, with a cap of $100 million for investments under the 70-30 route and $900 million under the 100 per cent route.
Which of the following is the antonym of the word ‘taper’ as used in the passage?

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The objective of monetary policy varies in different countries. In the U.K., the objective of monetary policy is to deliver price stability — implying low inflation — and, subject to that, to support the government’s economic objectives including those for growth and employment. Price stability in the U.K. is defined by the government’s inflation target of two per cent. In the U.S., monetary policy has two basic goals: to promote maximum sustainable output and employment, and to promote stable prices.
In India, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the objectives of the Reserve Bank are “…to regulate the issue of Bank notes and the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The formulation, framework and institutional architecture of monetary policy in India have evolved over time around these objectives — maintaining price stability; ensuring adequate flow of credit to sustain growth; and securing financial stability.
Modernising monetary policy framework should not be confused with another approach popularly called inflation targeting (IT) just because over the years, from 1990 to 2008, about two dozen countries adopted it, prominent amongst them being Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and UK. IT assumes that price stability is explicitly the mandate and a quatitative target for inflation is publicly announced.
Overall, monetary policy is based on a wide set of information that includes an inflation forecast; transparency in operations; and accountability mechanism. As can be easily noted, the IT approach mounts blinkers on the central bank and absolves it from other responsibilities: IT was in disrepute after the onset of the great recession in 2008. India resisted adopting IT all these years as it binds the central banker, and, after minting its own Multiple Indicator Approach in 1997, demonstrated its efficiency by following it meticulously to stave off the Southeast Asian Crisis as well as the great recession.
The monetary policy framework can be modernised by a number of initiatives which are successfully followed in other countries. In the U.K., every month, the Agent’s Summary compiled by the Bank of England’s (BoE’s) 12 agents, following discussions with 700 businesses, is published to assist the monetary policy makers in conjunction with intelligence from other sources. Similarly, in the U.S., the Beige Book, published eight times every year, is based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by each of the Federal Reserve Banks in their respective districts through reports and interviews with key business contacts, economists, market experts, and other sources. The Beige Book is an important source of real time market intelligence for the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
Which of the following is not one of the objectives of the RBI? Answer in the context of the passage.

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The objective of monetary policy varies in different countries. In the U.K., the objective of monetary policy is to deliver price stability — implying low inflation — and, subject to that, to support the government’s economic objectives including those for growth and employment. Price stability in the U.K. is defined by the government’s inflation target of two per cent. In the U.S., monetary policy has two basic goals: to promote maximum sustainable output and employment, and to promote stable prices.
In India, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the objectives of the Reserve Bank are “…to regulate the issue of Bank notes and the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The formulation, framework and institutional architecture of monetary policy in India have evolved over time around these objectives — maintaining price stability; ensuring adequate flow of credit to sustain growth; and securing financial stability.
Modernising monetary policy framework should not be confused with another approach popularly called inflation targeting (IT) just because over the years, from 1990 to 2008, about two dozen countries adopted it, prominent amongst them being Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and UK. IT assumes that price stability is explicitly the mandate and a quatitative target for inflation is publicly announced.
Overall, monetary policy is based on a wide set of information that includes an inflation forecast; transparency in operations; and accountability mechanism. As can be easily noted, the IT approach mounts blinkers on the central bank and absolves it from other responsibilities: IT was in disrepute after the onset of the great recession in 2008. India resisted adopting IT all these years as it binds the central banker, and, after minting its own Multiple Indicator Approach in 1997, demonstrated its efficiency by following it meticulously to stave off the Southeast Asian Crisis as well as the great recession.
The monetary policy framework can be modernised by a number of initiatives which are successfully followed in other countries. In the U.K., every month, the Agent’s Summary compiled by the Bank of England’s (BoE’s) 12 agents, following discussions with 700 businesses, is published to assist the monetary policy makers in conjunction with intelligence from other sources. Similarly, in the U.S., the Beige Book, published eight times every year, is based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by each of the Federal Reserve Banks in their respective districts through reports and interviews with key business contacts, economists, market experts, and other sources. The Beige Book is an important source of real time market intelligence for the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
Which of the following is/are the objectives of monetary policy in the UK? Answer in the context of the passage.
(A) To attract Flls and set up new industries
(B) To ensure price stability and maintain low inflation
(C) To support the government’s economic objectives for growth and employment

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The objective of monetary policy varies in different countries. In the U.K., the objective of monetary policy is to deliver price stability — implying low inflation — and, subject to that, to support the government’s economic objectives including those for growth and employment. Price stability in the U.K. is defined by the government’s inflation target of two per cent. In the U.S., monetary policy has two basic goals: to promote maximum sustainable output and employment, and to promote stable prices.
In India, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the objectives of the Reserve Bank are “…to regulate the issue of Bank notes and the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The formulation, framework and institutional architecture of monetary policy in India have evolved over time around these objectives — maintaining price stability; ensuring adequate flow of credit to sustain growth; and securing financial stability.
Modernising monetary policy framework should not be confused with another approach popularly called inflation targeting (IT) just because over the years, from 1990 to 2008, about two dozen countries adopted it, prominent amongst them being Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and UK. IT assumes that price stability is explicitly the mandate and a quatitative target for inflation is publicly announced.
Overall, monetary policy is based on a wide set of information that includes an inflation forecast; transparency in operations; and accountability mechanism. As can be easily noted, the IT approach mounts blinkers on the central bank and absolves it from other responsibilities: IT was in disrepute after the onset of the great recession in 2008. India resisted adopting IT all these years as it binds the central banker, and, after minting its own Multiple Indicator Approach in 1997, demonstrated its efficiency by following it meticulously to stave off the Southeast Asian Crisis as well as the great recession.
The monetary policy framework can be modernised by a number of initiatives which are successfully followed in other countries. In the U.K., every month, the Agent’s Summary compiled by the Bank of England’s (BoE’s) 12 agents, following discussions with 700 businesses, is published to assist the monetary policy makers in conjunction with intelligence from other sources. Similarly, in the U.S., the Beige Book, published eight times every year, is based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by each of the Federal Reserve Banks in their respective districts through reports and interviews with key business contacts, economists, market experts, and other sources. The Beige Book is an important source of real time market intelligence for the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
Find the incorrect statement in the context of the given passage.
(A) The goal of the monetary policy in the USA is to maintain price stability and generate employment.
(B) Price stability in the UK is defined by the government’s inflation target of 2%.
(C) The Being Book provides input to the Federal Reserve Banks.

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The objective of monetary policy varies in different countries. In the U.K., the objective of monetary policy is to deliver price stability — implying low inflation — and, subject to that, to support the government’s economic objectives including those for growth and employment. Price stability in the U.K. is defined by the government’s inflation target of two per cent. In the U.S., monetary policy has two basic goals: to promote maximum sustainable output and employment, and to promote stable prices.
In India, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the objectives of the Reserve Bank are “…to regulate the issue of Bank notes and the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The formulation, framework and institutional architecture of monetary policy in India have evolved over time around these objectives — maintaining price stability; ensuring adequate flow of credit to sustain growth; and securing financial stability.
Modernising monetary policy framework should not be confused with another approach popularly called inflation targeting (IT) just because over the years, from 1990 to 2008, about two dozen countries adopted it, prominent amongst them being Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and UK. IT assumes that price stability is explicitly the mandate and a quatitative target for inflation is publicly announced.
Overall, monetary policy is based on a wide set of information that includes an inflation forecast; transparency in operations; and accountability mechanism. As can be easily noted, the IT approach mounts blinkers on the central bank and absolves it from other responsibilities: IT was in disrepute after the onset of the great recession in 2008. India resisted adopting IT all these years as it binds the central banker, and, after minting its own Multiple Indicator Approach in 1997, demonstrated its efficiency by following it meticulously to stave off the Southeast Asian Crisis as well as the great recession.
The monetary policy framework can be modernised by a number of initiatives which are successfully followed in other countries. In the U.K., every month, the Agent’s Summary compiled by the Bank of England’s (BoE’s) 12 agents, following discussions with 700 businesses, is published to assist the monetary policy makers in conjunction with intelligence from other sources. Similarly, in the U.S., the Beige Book, published eight times every year, is based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by each of the Federal Reserve Banks in their respective districts through reports and interviews with key business contacts, economists, market experts, and other sources. The Beige Book is an important source of real time market intelligence for the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
What initiative(s) is/are followed in different countries for the modernizationof the monetary policy framework?
(A) Agemt’s summary compiled by the Bank of England’s 12 agents is published to assist the monetary policy makers.
(B) In India the Reserve Bank collects Information from PSBs for the modernization of the monetary policy framework.
(C) In the US, the Beige Book, based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by Federal Reserve Banks, is punlished eight times every year.

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The objective of monetary policy varies in different countries. In the U.K., the objective of monetary policy is to deliver price stability — implying low inflation — and, subject to that, to support the government’s economic objectives including those for growth and employment. Price stability in the U.K. is defined by the government’s inflation target of two per cent. In the U.S., monetary policy has two basic goals: to promote maximum sustainable output and employment, and to promote stable prices.
In India, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the objectives of the Reserve Bank are “…to regulate the issue of Bank notes and the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The formulation, framework and institutional architecture of monetary policy in India have evolved over time around these objectives — maintaining price stability; ensuring adequate flow of credit to sustain growth; and securing financial stability.
Modernising monetary policy framework should not be confused with another approach popularly called inflation targeting (IT) just because over the years, from 1990 to 2008, about two dozen countries adopted it, prominent amongst them being Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and UK. IT assumes that price stability is explicitly the mandate and a quatitative target for inflation is publicly announced.
Overall, monetary policy is based on a wide set of information that includes an inflation forecast; transparency in operations; and accountability mechanism. As can be easily noted, the IT approach mounts blinkers on the central bank and absolves it from other responsibilities: IT was in disrepute after the onset of the great recession in 2008. India resisted adopting IT all these years as it binds the central banker, and, after minting its own Multiple Indicator Approach in 1997, demonstrated its efficiency by following it meticulously to stave off the Southeast Asian Crisis as well as the great recession.
The monetary policy framework can be modernised by a number of initiatives which are successfully followed in other countries. In the U.K., every month, the Agent’s Summary compiled by the Bank of England’s (BoE’s) 12 agents, following discussions with 700 businesses, is published to assist the monetary policy makers in conjunction with intelligence from other sources. Similarly, in the U.S., the Beige Book, published eight times every year, is based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by each of the Federal Reserve Banks in their respective districts through reports and interviews with key business contacts, economists, market experts, and other sources. The Beige Book is an important source of real time market intelligence for the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
Which of the following factors does not help frame monetary policy? Answer in the context of the passage.

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The objective of monetary policy varies in different countries. In the U.K., the objective of monetary policy is to deliver price stability — implying low inflation — and, subject to that, to support the government’s economic objectives including those for growth and employment. Price stability in the U.K. is defined by the government’s inflation target of two per cent. In the U.S., monetary policy has two basic goals: to promote maximum sustainable output and employment, and to promote stable prices.
In India, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the objectives of the Reserve Bank are “…to regulate the issue of Bank notes and the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The formulation, framework and institutional architecture of monetary policy in India have evolved over time around these objectives — maintaining price stability; ensuring adequate flow of credit to sustain growth; and securing financial stability.
Modernising monetary policy framework should not be confused with another approach popularly called inflation targeting (IT) just because over the years, from 1990 to 2008, about two dozen countries adopted it, prominent amongst them being Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and UK. IT assumes that price stability is explicitly the mandate and a quatitative target for inflation is publicly announced.
Overall, monetary policy is based on a wide set of information that includes an inflation forecast; transparency in operations; and accountability mechanism. As can be easily noted, the IT approach mounts blinkers on the central bank and absolves it from other responsibilities: IT was in disrepute after the onset of the great recession in 2008. India resisted adopting IT all these years as it binds the central banker, and, after minting its own Multiple Indicator Approach in 1997, demonstrated its efficiency by following it meticulously to stave off the Southeast Asian Crisis as well as the great recession.
The monetary policy framework can be modernised by a number of initiatives which are successfully followed in other countries. In the U.K., every month, the Agent’s Summary compiled by the Bank of England’s (BoE’s) 12 agents, following discussions with 700 businesses, is published to assist the monetary policy makers in conjunction with intelligence from other sources. Similarly, in the U.S., the Beige Book, published eight times every year, is based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by each of the Federal Reserve Banks in their respective districts through reports and interviews with key business contacts, economists, market experts, and other sources. The Beige Book is an important source of real time market intelligence for the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
What is the antonym of the word ‘conjunction’ as used in the passage?

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The objective of monetary policy varies in different countries. In the U.K., the objective of monetary policy is to deliver price stability — implying low inflation — and, subject to that, to support the government’s economic objectives including those for growth and employment. Price stability in the U.K. is defined by the government’s inflation target of two per cent. In the U.S., monetary policy has two basic goals: to promote maximum sustainable output and employment, and to promote stable prices.
In India, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the objectives of the Reserve Bank are “…to regulate the issue of Bank notes and the keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.” The formulation, framework and institutional architecture of monetary policy in India have evolved over time around these objectives — maintaining price stability; ensuring adequate flow of credit to sustain growth; and securing financial stability.
Modernising monetary policy framework should not be confused with another approach popularly called inflation targeting (IT) just because over the years, from 1990 to 2008, about two dozen countries adopted it, prominent amongst them being Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and UK. IT assumes that price stability is explicitly the mandate and a quatitative target for inflation is publicly announced.
Overall, monetary policy is based on a wide set of information that includes an inflation forecast; transparency in operations; and accountability mechanism. As can be easily noted, the IT approach mounts blinkers on the central bank and absolves it from other responsibilities: IT was in disrepute after the onset of the great recession in 2008. India resisted adopting IT all these years as it binds the central banker, and, after minting its own Multiple Indicator Approach in 1997, demonstrated its efficiency by following it meticulously to stave off the Southeast Asian Crisis as well as the great recession.
The monetary policy framework can be modernised by a number of initiatives which are successfully followed in other countries. In the U.K., every month, the Agent’s Summary compiled by the Bank of England’s (BoE’s) 12 agents, following discussions with 700 businesses, is published to assist the monetary policy makers in conjunction with intelligence from other sources. Similarly, in the U.S., the Beige Book, published eight times every year, is based on anecdotal information on current economic conditions collected by each of the Federal Reserve Banks in their respective districts through reports and interviews with key business contacts, economists, market experts, and other sources. The Beige Book is an important source of real time market intelligence for the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC).
What is the synonym of the word ‘absolves’ as used in the passage?

Who among the following England cricketer has won the three England cricket awards?

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Which panel was recently marking news for its recommendations regarding Minimum Alternate Tax(MAT)?

Recently demolished “Temple of Baalshamin” was located in _____?

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The Government of India (GoI) has recently launched a new health initiative “SEHAT”. What does, “SEHAT” stands for?

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Who has won the FBB Femina Miss India World 2018?