SBI PO Online Test Series 1st, SBI PO Free Online Test
Finish Quiz
0 of 60 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
Information
SBI PO Online Test Series 1st, SBI PO Free Online Test, SBI PO Full Online Mock Test Series 1st in English. SBI PO All Subjects Online Test, SBI PO Free Mock Test Series. SBI PO Free Mock Test Series 1. SBI PO English Language Online Test in English Series 1st. SBI PO Quantitative Aptitude Quiz 2024, SBI PO Reasoning Ability Free Online Test. Take SBI PO Online Quiz. The SBI PO Full online mock test paper is free for all students. SBI PO Question and Answers in Hindi and English Series 1. Here we are providing SBI PO Full Mock Test Paper in English. SBI PO Mock Test Series 1st 2024. Now Test your self for SBI PO Exam by using below quiz…
This paper has 60 questions.
Time allowed is 60 minutes.
The SBI PO Online Test Series 1st, SBI PO Free Online Test Exam is Very helpful for all students. Now Scroll down below n click on “Start Quiz” or “Start Test” and Test yourself.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 60 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 60
1. Question
In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7’; ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written as ‘1 6 3’. How is ‘goals’ written in that code language?
Correct
In the above statements ‘many’ and ‘9’ are in two sentences. So ‘many’ is ‘9’.
Similarly ‘scored’ and ‘3’ are in two sentences. So ‘scored’ is ‘3’.
In the first sentence ‘how’ , ‘goals’ , ‘5’ and ‘7’ are left. So ‘how’ and ‘goals’ can be either ‘5’ or ‘7’ ( if ‘how’ is ‘5’ then ‘goals’ is ‘7’ and vice versa).Incorrect
In the above statements ‘many’ and ‘9’ are in two sentences. So ‘many’ is ‘9’.
Similarly ‘scored’ and ‘3’ are in two sentences. So ‘scored’ is ‘3’.
In the first sentence ‘how’ , ‘goals’ , ‘5’ and ‘7’ are left. So ‘how’ and ‘goals’ can be either ‘5’ or ‘7’ ( if ‘how’ is ‘5’ then ‘goals’ is ‘7’ and vice versa). -
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code?
Correct
Split TEMPORAL into two halves TEMP and ORAL
Reversing the order of letters we get PMET and LARO
Subtracting 1 from PMET we get P – 1 = O , M – 1 = L , E – 1 = D , T – 1 = S
Adding 1 to LARO we get L + 1 = M , A + 1 = B , R + 1 = S , O + 1 = P
Applying the same concept to CONSIDER
CONS ⇒ SNOC IDER ⇒ REDI
S – 1 = R , N – 1 = M , O – 1 = N , C – 1 = B
I + 1 = J , D + 1 = E , E + 1 = F , R + 1 = S
RMNBJEFSIncorrect
Split TEMPORAL into two halves TEMP and ORAL
Reversing the order of letters we get PMET and LARO
Subtracting 1 from PMET we get P – 1 = O , M – 1 = L , E – 1 = D , T – 1 = S
Adding 1 to LARO we get L + 1 = M , A + 1 = B , R + 1 = S , O + 1 = P
Applying the same concept to CONSIDER
CONS ⇒ SNOC IDER ⇒ REDI
S – 1 = R , N – 1 = M , O – 1 = N , C – 1 = B
I + 1 = J , D + 1 = E , E + 1 = F , R + 1 = S
RMNBJEFS -
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each word?
Correct
Only two words can be made out of DLEI
- IDLE
- LIED
Incorrect
Only two words can be made out of DLEI
- IDLE
- LIED
-
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest?
Correct
D > A and C < B , E
We don’t know the relation between A and B , B and E , B and D , D and E and A and C.
So it is impossible to answer this question without providing any of the required information.
Hence Data InadequateIncorrect
D > A and C < B , E
We don’t know the relation between A and B , B and E , B and D , D and E and A and C.
So it is impossible to answer this question without providing any of the required information.
Hence Data Inadequate -
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the, third digit from the left end after the rearrangement ?
Correct
5263187 will change to 6154278 after the modifications done as mentioned in the question.
Now arranging them in ascending order => 1245678
=> Third digit from left = 4
Incorrect
5263187 will change to 6154278 after the modifications done as mentioned in the question.
Now arranging them in ascending order => 1245678
=> Third digit from left = 4
-
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
Pratap corrrectly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before twenty third April but after Nineteenth April, where as his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which day in April is definitely their mother’s birthday ?
Correct
According to Pratap, his mother’s birthday can be on 20th, 21st or 22nd of April.
According to Pratap’s sister, her mother’s birthday can be on 20th or 21st of April.
=> Their mother’s birthday can be on either 20th or 21st of April.
Incorrect
According to Pratap, his mother’s birthday can be on 20th, 21st or 22nd of April.
According to Pratap’s sister, her mother’s birthday can be on 20th or 21st of April.
=> Their mother’s birthday can be on either 20th or 21st of April.
-
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 meters he took a right turn and walked 30 meters. He then took a right turn and walked 100 meters. He again took a right turn and walked 30 meters and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point?
Correct
Ashok walked 50m towards South. Then he took right and walked 30m=> he is travelling towards East. Now, he is 50m South and 30m East from his starting position.
Then he took right and travelled 100m => Now he is walking towards North and is 50m North and 30m East from his starting position.
Finally, he took right again and travelled 30m => He is walking towards West and is 50m North from his starting position.
Incorrect
Ashok walked 50m towards South. Then he took right and walked 30m=> he is travelling towards East. Now, he is 50m South and 30m East from his starting position.
Then he took right and travelled 100m => Now he is walking towards North and is 50m North and 30m East from his starting position.
Finally, he took right again and travelled 30m => He is walking towards West and is 50m North from his starting position.
-
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
If ‘÷’ means ‘+’; ‘-‘ means ‘x’;’x’ means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘-‘; then 15 – 8 x 6 ÷ 12 + 4 = ?
Correct
After replacing the symbols we get the equation as 15 x 8 ÷ 6 + 12 – 4
Applying BODMAS rule
15 x 8 ÷ 6 + 12 – 4
= 20 + 12 – 4
= 32 – 4
= 28Incorrect
After replacing the symbols we get the equation as 15 x 8 ÷ 6 + 12 – 4
Applying BODMAS rule
15 x 8 ÷ 6 + 12 – 4
= 20 + 12 – 4
= 32 – 4
= 28 -
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F?
Correct
The below are the different possible positions of the cities:
B and B
HD F D F
H
Hence H can be South-East of F or East of F.
=> Data Inadequate
Incorrect
The below are the different possible positions of the cities:
B and B
HD F D F
H
Hence H can be South-East of F or East of F.
=> Data Inadequate
-
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
Correct
SEARCHES
A – 1, C – 3, E – 5, H – 8, R – 18, S – 19
Between (S,S) and (E,E) there are 0 letters => 1 pair
Between (A,C) and (C,E) there is 1 letter => 1 pair
In total there are 2 pairs.Incorrect
SEARCHES
A – 1, C – 3, E – 5, H – 8, R – 18, S – 19
Between (S,S) and (E,E) there are 0 letters => 1 pair
Between (A,C) and (C,E) there is 1 letter => 1 pair
In total there are 2 pairs. -
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All cups are bottles.
Some bottles are jugs.
No jug is plate.
Some plates are tables.Conclusions:
I. Some tables are bottles.
II. Some plates are cups.
III. No table is bottle.
IV. Some jugs are cups.Correct
The conclusions talk about a relation between tables and bottles. Let’s bring a relation between these two using the given statements.
Some bottles are jugs and no jug is a plate => some bottles can be plates or no bottle is a plate
Some plates are tables => some bottles can be plates or no bottle is a plate. — (1)
All cups are bottles and some bottles are jugs => Nothing about cups and jugs can be derived from this.
Since we cannot derive a conclusion between cups and jugs, it is not possible to derive a conclusion between cups and plates as well.
Hence option E, which says that some bottles can be plates or no bottle is a plate is the answer.
Incorrect
The conclusions talk about a relation between tables and bottles. Let’s bring a relation between these two using the given statements.
Some bottles are jugs and no jug is a plate => some bottles can be plates or no bottle is a plate
Some plates are tables => some bottles can be plates or no bottle is a plate. — (1)
All cups are bottles and some bottles are jugs => Nothing about cups and jugs can be derived from this.
Since we cannot derive a conclusion between cups and jugs, it is not possible to derive a conclusion between cups and plates as well.
Hence option E, which says that some bottles can be plates or no bottle is a plate is the answer.
-
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some chairs are handles.
All handles are pots.
All pots are mats.
Some mats are buses.
Conclusions:
I. Some buses are handles.
II. Some mats are chairs.
III. No bus is handle.
IV. Some mats are handles.
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All birds are horses.
All horses are tigers.
Some tigers are lions.
Some lions are monkeys.
Conclusions:
I. Some tigers are horses.
II. Some monkeys are birds.
III. Some tigers are birds.
IV. Some monkeys are horses.
Correct
Birds is a subset of Horses, which is a subset of Tigers. So, conclusions I and III follow. But, conclusions II and IV need not follow.
Incorrect
Birds is a subset of Horses, which is a subset of Tigers. So, conclusions I and III follow. But, conclusions II and IV need not follow.
-
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some benches are walls.
All walls are houses.
Some houses are jungles.
All jungles are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are benches.
II. Some jungles are walls.
III. Some houses are benches.
IV. Some roads are houses.
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
Direction: In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some sticks are lamps.
Some flowers are lamps.
Some lamps are dresses.
All dresses are shirts.
Conclusions:
I. Some shirts are sticks.
II. Some shirts are flowers.
III. Some flowers are sticks.
IV. Some dresses are sticks.
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination from six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years
What is the respective ratio of total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from State B in the year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam from State C in the same year
Correct
The number of students from State B who cleared the exam in 2004 is 51%*1.04*100000 = 53040
The number of students from State C who cleared the exam in 2004 is 32%*1.11*100000 = 35520
Hence, the ratio is 221:148
Incorrect
The number of students from State B who cleared the exam in 2004 is 51%*1.04*100000 = 53040
The number of students from State C who cleared the exam in 2004 is 32%*1.11*100000 = 35520
Hence, the ratio is 221:148
-
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination from six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years
In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D ?
Correct
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2004 was 24%*1.32*100000 = 31680
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2005 was 49%*1.15*100000 = 53900
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2006 was 24%*1.32*100000 = 68600
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2007 was 46%*1.88*100000 = 86480
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2008 was 60%*1.83*100000 = 109800
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2009 was 56%*2.01*100000 = 112560
Hence, the year with the highest number of successful candidates from Section D is 2009
Incorrect
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2004 was 24%*1.32*100000 = 31680
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2005 was 49%*1.15*100000 = 53900
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2006 was 24%*1.32*100000 = 68600
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2007 was 46%*1.88*100000 = 86480
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2008 was 60%*1.83*100000 = 109800
The number of students who cleared the exam in 2009 was 56%*2.01*100000 = 112560
Hence, the year with the highest number of successful candidates from Section D is 2009
-
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination from six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years
What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year 2007?
Correct
The percentage of students from State A who passed the exam in 2007 is 41%
So, the percentage of students from State A who failed the exam in 2007 is 59%
Hence, the number of students who failed the exam in 2007 is 59%*1.98*100000= 116820
Incorrect
The percentage of students from State A who passed the exam in 2007 is 41%
So, the percentage of students from State A who failed the exam in 2007 is 59%
Hence, the number of students who failed the exam in 2007 is 59%*1.98*100000= 116820
-
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination from six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years
What is the total numberof candidates clearing the entrance exam from States E and F together in the year 2006 ?
Correct
The number of students who passed the exam from State E in 2006 is 49%*1.42*100000 = 69,580
The number of students who passed the exam from State F in 2006 is 26%*1.58*100000 = 41,080
Hence, the total is 110,660
Incorrect
The number of students who passed the exam from State E in 2006 is 49%*1.42*100000 = 69,580
The number of students who passed the exam from State F in 2006 is 26%*1.58*100000 = 41,080
Hence, the total is 110,660
-
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination from six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years
What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam from State D in the years 2007, 2008 and 2009 together ?
Correct
The number of students who appeared for the exam from State D in 2007 is 1.88*100000 = 188000
The number of students who appeared for the exam from State D in 2008 is 1.83*100000 = 183000
The number of students who appeared for the exam from State D in 2009 is 2.01*100000 = 201000
Hence, the required average is 190,666.66
Incorrect
The number of students who appeared for the exam from State D in 2007 is 1.88*100000 = 188000
The number of students who appeared for the exam from State D in 2008 is 1.83*100000 = 183000
The number of students who appeared for the exam from State D in 2009 is 2.01*100000 = 201000
Hence, the required average is 190,666.66
-
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.
If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue ?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.
If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are red ?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.
If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that two are blue and one is yellow?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.
If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that one is green, two are blue and one is red ?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.
If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are green or both are yellow ?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
Direction: Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Given below are three charts showing break ups of
a) Number of employees working in different departments of an organization
b) Number of males in the organization and
c) Number of employees who recently got promoted in each department
If half of the number of employees who got promoted from the IT department were males, what was the approximate percentage of males who got promoted from the IT department ?
Correct
Number of IT employees = 20% of 2040 = 408
Number of IT employees promoted = 26% of 1200 = 312
Half of these are males => number of male IT employees promoted = 156
=> Percentage of male IT employees promoted = 156/408×100 = 38%
Incorrect
Number of IT employees = 20% of 2040 = 408
Number of IT employees promoted = 26% of 1200 = 312
Half of these are males => number of male IT employees promoted = 156
=> Percentage of male IT employees promoted = 156/408×100 = 38%
-
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
Direction: Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Given below are three charts showing break ups of
a) Number of employees working in different departments of an organization
b) Number of males in the organization and
c) Number of employees who recently got promoted in each department
What is the total number of females working in the Production and Marketing departments together?
Correct
Total number of employees in production and marketing = 53% of 3600 = 1908
Total number of male employees in production and marketing = 65% of 2040 = 1326
Total number of female employees in production and marketing = 1908 – 1326 =582
Incorrect
Total number of employees in production and marketing = 53% of 3600 = 1908
Total number of male employees in production and marketing = 65% of 2040 = 1326
Total number of female employees in production and marketing = 1908 – 1326 =582
-
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
Direction: Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Given below are three charts showing break ups of
a) Number of employees working in different departments of an organization
b) Number of males in the organization and
c) Number of employees who recently got promoted in each department
How many females work in the Accounts department?
Correct
Number of employees in accounts department = 20% of 3600 = 720
Number of male employees in accounts department = 5% of 2040 = 102
Number of female employees in accounts department = 720 – 102 = 618Incorrect
Number of employees in accounts department = 20% of 3600 = 720
Number of male employees in accounts department = 5% of 2040 = 102
Number of female employees in accounts department = 720 – 102 = 618 -
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
Direction: Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Given below are three charts showing break ups of
a) Number of employees working in different departments of an organization
b) Number of males in the organization and
c) Number of employees who recently got promoted in each department
The total number of employees who got promoted from all the departments together was what percent of the total number of employees working in all the departments together? (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
Correct
Total number of employees promoted = 1200
Total number of employees working = 3600
Percentage of employees promoted = 1200/3600×100 = 33 (approx)
Incorrect
Total number of employees promoted = 1200
Total number of employees working = 3600
Percentage of employees promoted = 1200/3600×100 = 33 (approx)
-
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
Direction: Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Given below are three charts showing break ups of
a) Number of employees working in different departments of an organization
b) Number of males in the organization and
c) Number of employees who recently got promoted in each department
The number of employees who got promoted from the HR department was what percent of the total number of employees working in that department ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
Correct
The number of employees promoted in HR = 11% of 1200 = 132
Total number of employees in HR = 12% of 3600 = 432
=> percentage of employees promoted in HR = 132/432×100 = 30.56%
Incorrect
The number of employees promoted in HR = 11% of 1200 = 132
Total number of employees in HR = 12% of 3600 = 432
=> percentage of employees promoted in HR = 132/432×100 = 30.56%
-
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
What is the full form of “NBFC” as used in the Financial Sector ?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
100% concession has been given for travelling in the Indian Railways for patients of ____
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
Many a times, we read about Special Drawing Right (SDR) in newspapers. As per its definition, SDR is a monetary unit of the reserve assets of which of the following organizations / agencies?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 2010-11 ?
(A) Number of new steps taken to simplify the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regime.
(B) Rs. 16,500 crore provided to ensure that the Public Sector Banks are able to attain a minimum 8% capital (Tier I) by March 2011.
(C) More than Rs. 1,74,000 crore provided for the development of the infrastructure in the country.
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
In how many Routes special tourist trains called “Bharat Tirth” is to start?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
As per the newspaper reports, the Govt. of India made an auction of the Third Generation Spectrum (3G) recently. Which of the following ministries was actively involved in the process?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
As per the recent announcement, the Govt. of India will provide an amount of Rs.48,000 crore to develop Rural Infrastructure in the country. This planned development is being undertaken under which of the following schemes ?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
Ladies special trains to be renamed with the Name of ____
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
How much funds has been allocated to the Unique Identification Authority of India?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
What is the rate of Income Tax for incomes above Rs 1.6 lakh upto Rs 5 lakh?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
Recently, India took part in “Nuclear New Build 2010 Conference” organized in ____
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
What is the reduction in Service Charges on e-tickets?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
As we know, with the launch of Nano by Tatas, India has become favourite Small Car Destination of the world. Other than India, which of the following countries is also a popular destination of small cars ?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
Imports from China in the Year of 2008-09 in Rs ____
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
How many new teams have been added in IPL 2010?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b),c) and d) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence?
If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate States, a recent report ____
Correct
The rationale behind formation of separate states is better governance and improvement in economy. The report refutes this idea. So, the most apt concluding sentence would be “…indicated that the formation of smaller states does not necessarily improve the economy:. So, option b) is the best answer.
Incorrect
The rationale behind formation of separate states is better governance and improvement in economy. The report refutes this idea. So, the most apt concluding sentence would be “…indicated that the formation of smaller states does not necessarily improve the economy:. So, option b) is the best answer.
-
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b),c) and d) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence?
If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer, ____
Correct
The first part of the sentence talks about water scarcity in summer and the fact that somebody is overlooking it. So, the statement in option d) which says many residential areas continue to waste water would be the best way in which to complete the sentence. Hence option d) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
The first part of the sentence talks about water scarcity in summer and the fact that somebody is overlooking it. So, the statement in option d) which says many residential areas continue to waste water would be the best way in which to complete the sentence. Hence option d) is the correct answer.
-
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b),c) and d) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence?
If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.He has lost most of his life’s earning in the stock market but ____
Correct
The sentence says he lost most of his savings but…The best completion to this sentence is option a) which says he still leads a life of luxury. Option a) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
The sentence says he lost most of his savings but…The best completion to this sentence is option a) which says he still leads a life of luxury. Option a) is the correct answer.
-
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b),c) and d) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence?
If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal, ____
Correct
The second part of the sentence should also talk about achieving equality for women. Options b) and d) are relevant. Between these two, option d) is a better choice because it complements the first part by saying that the goal is not only laudable but also difficult to achieve.
Incorrect
The second part of the sentence should also talk about achieving equality for women. Options b) and d) are relevant. Between these two, option d) is a better choice because it complements the first part by saying that the goal is not only laudable but also difficult to achieve.
-
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b),c) and d) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence?
If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.____ or else they would not keep electing him year after year.
Correct
The second part of the sentence says the mayor is being elected year after year. So, the first part of the sentence should say something positive about him. The best answer is option d), which says the residents must be really impressed with his political style.
Incorrect
The second part of the sentence says the mayor is being elected year after year. So, the first part of the sentence should say something positive about him. The best answer is option d), which says the residents must be really impressed with his political style.
-
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
Direction: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Drawing attention to the pitfalls of ____ solely on Uranium as a fuel for nuclear reactors, Indian scientists warned that Uranium will not last for long and thus research on Thorium as its ____ must be revived.
Correct
Thorium should be used as a substitute or alternative to Uranium. So, options a) and e) are relevant. Because of the use of the words ‘solely on’ in the first part of the sentence, we can pick option e) over option a).
Incorrect
Thorium should be used as a substitute or alternative to Uranium. So, options a) and e) are relevant. Because of the use of the words ‘solely on’ in the first part of the sentence, we can pick option e) over option a).
-
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
Direction: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
In an effort to provide ____ for higher education to all, most of the universities have been providing education without adequate infrastructure, thus churning out ____ graduates every year.
Correct
The word in the second blank should have a negative connotation because the sentence says the universities are churning out graduates without providing them with proper education. So, options c) and e) are relevant. Between the two, only option c) makes sense in the first blank. So, option c) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
The word in the second blank should have a negative connotation because the sentence says the universities are churning out graduates without providing them with proper education. So, options c) and e) are relevant. Between the two, only option c) makes sense in the first blank. So, option c) is the correct answer.
-
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
Direction: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The move to allow dumping of mercury ____ an outcry from residents of the area who ____ that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area.
Correct
Only fear and believe are applicable in the second blank. Between ‘provoked’ and ‘angered’, provoked is more suitable in the first blank. So, option b) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Only fear and believe are applicable in the second blank. Between ‘provoked’ and ‘angered’, provoked is more suitable in the first blank. So, option b) is the correct answer.
-
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
Direction: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
____ has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for dealing in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a stock of ____ drugs.
Correct
Only ‘outdated’, ‘expired’ and ‘invalid’ are applicable in the second blank. Among the three options, only ‘action’ is suitable in the first blank because of the use of the words ‘has been taken’ after the blank. So, option d) is the best answer.
Incorrect
Only ‘outdated’, ‘expired’ and ‘invalid’ are applicable in the second blank. Among the three options, only ‘action’ is suitable in the first blank because of the use of the words ‘has been taken’ after the blank. So, option d) is the best answer.
-
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
Direction: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Even as the ____ else where in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to ____ this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.
Correct
Except option e), all the other words are suitable in the first blank. But, only option a) is applicable in the second blank because companies don’t try to reduce the growth.
Incorrect
Except option e), all the other words are suitable in the first blank. But, only option a) is applicable in the second blank because companies don’t try to reduce the growth.
-
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as the answer.
Soon after the Tsunami had killed thousands of people along the coasts of southern India, parliament passes a bill that proposed to set up an institutional mechanism to respond promptly to natural disasters.
Correct
The sentence is in the simple past tense. So, the correct construction of the sentence should be “…passed a bill that proposed…”. So, option a) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
The sentence is in the simple past tense. So, the correct construction of the sentence should be “…passed a bill that proposed…”. So, option a) is the correct answer.
-
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as the answer.Denial of wages forced scientists and teachers at the agriculture universities throughout the country to go on strike, crippling crucial research that could help the state of agriculture in the country.
Correct
The sentence is grammatically correct. There is no correction required.
Incorrect
The sentence is grammatically correct. There is no correction required.
-
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as the answer.In an attempt to boost their profits many edible oil producing companies have been engaging themselves in propaganda against commonly used oils and promoting exotic and expensive varieties of oils as more healthier options
Correct
The sentence is comparing commonly used oils and exotic oils. So, ‘more’ should be used and not ‘most’. There is more than one option besides commonly used oil – exotic and expensive varieties of oils. So, it should be options. So, the sentence is grammatically correct and no correction is needed.
Incorrect
The sentence is comparing commonly used oils and exotic oils. So, ‘more’ should be used and not ‘most’. There is more than one option besides commonly used oil – exotic and expensive varieties of oils. So, it should be options. So, the sentence is grammatically correct and no correction is needed.
-
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as the answer.Thanks to numerous government initiatives, rural masses which was earlier unaware of the luxuries of urban ways of living are now connected to the same lifestyle.
Correct
Masses is plural, so it should be ‘were’ instead of ‘was’. Also, the use of the word ‘which’ is incorrect. The correct word is ‘who’. So, option d) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Masses is plural, so it should be ‘were’ instead of ‘was’. Also, the use of the word ‘which’ is incorrect. The correct word is ‘who’. So, option d) is the correct answer.
-
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
Direction: Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark e) as the answer.Over the last few months, while most industries are busy in restructuring operations, cutting costs and firing, the Indian pharmaceutical and healthcare industry was adding manpower and giving salary hikes.
Correct
The sentence is in past tense. So, ‘were’ should be used instead of ‘are’. ‘Where’ is used for a place whereas ‘while’ is used to refer to a period of time. So, option b) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
The sentence is in past tense. So, ‘were’ should be used instead of ‘are’. ‘Where’ is used for a place whereas ‘while’ is used to refer to a period of time. So, option b) is the correct answer.
